Tuesday, May 7, 2013

MODEL PAPERS-03



1. Underwriting is the process of
a) Issuing policies after duly signing and stamping the same.
b) Assessing the risk and taking a decision about the acceptance of the risk.
c) Collection of details about the proposers. d) Carrying out investigation about the correctness of the statements made in the proposal.

2. The Criteria and guidelines for the selection of risk (underwriting) are
a) Stipulated in the I.R.D.A Regulations
b) Stipulated in the Insurance Act 1938
c) Developed by each insurer.
d) Developed by the Insurance council

3. Which of the following does not form part of the possible decision of an underwriter?
a) To accept the risk at ordinary rates
b) To accept the risk with extra premium
c) To accept the risk on modified terms or special terms
d) To accept the risk for a stepped-up Sum Assured on his own.

4. As per I.R.D.A. Regulations, the insurer has to convey the decision on the proposal to the proposer
within …………….. days from receiving the proposal with all requirements:
a) 30 days b) 15 days c) 7 days d) 60 days

5. Which of the following does not form part of the purpose of medical examination?
a) To ascertain information required for assessing the risk by the underwriter
b) To reduce the chances of adverse selection by the company
c) To ascertain whether a more comprehensive medical check-up involving special reports is
warranted
d) To avoid lapsation of the policy

6. Which of the following does not form part of occupation hazard?
a) The exposure to danger or violence
b) The chances of developing illness due to working conditions
c) Increased risk of accidents
d) Area of residence

7. The parameters such as height. Weight, chest and abdominal measurements, blood-pressure and pulse
rate help the underwriter to assess the
a) Physical hazard b) Occupation hazard c) Moral hazard d) Insurable Interest

8. Moral hazard relates to the
a) Physical characteristics of the risk
b) Living conditions and environment of the proposer
c) Conduct, attitude and intentions of the proposer. d) None of the above.

9. Which of the following are possible indicators of fraudulent intentions?
(i) The proposer is requesting for insurance for a large amount at an advanced age.
(ii) The proposer asks for a policy insuring a non-earning family member without any existing
insurance cover for the earning member of the family.
(iii) The proposer asks for a policy to provide pension for him starting from his age 55 whereas his
present age is only 30.
(iv) When the medical check up is done at a place different from his place of residence.
a) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct b) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct d) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct

10. Human life value concept is applied
a) In financial underwriting to cap the amount of life insurance an individual can get
b) In medical underwriting to assess the risk
c) In non-medical underwriting where risk is assessed on the basis of personal statement of the
proposer.
d) In group insurance to determine the insurance cover.

11. Under non-medical underwriting, the risk is covered without any medical check-up
(i) Subject to restrictions in respect of age and sum assured.
(ii) Only in respect of certain types of insurance plans
(iii) For all categories of live without any restrictions
(iv) Only for male lives
a) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct b) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i) and (ii) are correct d) (i) and (iii) are correct

12. Rajesh is aged 35 years and is having remaining period of service of 25 years. He is earning an annual
income of Rs.4 Lakhs. After deducting taxes and other fixed deductions, his net annual contribution to
family is Rs.3,00,000 pa. At the current rate of interest (viz) 8% p.a. if someone invests Rs.37,50,000
in Bank F.D. it will fetch an annual interest of Rs.3,00,000. The Human Life Value calculated using
the simple income replacement method will be
a) Rs.10,00,000 b) Rs.75,00,000 c) Rs.37,50,000 d) Rs.90,00,000

13. There are certain cases where the underwriter will feel that the additional risk associated with a person
might diminish and become normal after a certain period, the insurer may impose a lien which
a) Will be applicable throughout the term of the policy
b) May be applied at diminishing rate expiring on completion of a specified period.
c) Will not affect the risk cover at any point of time during the policy term
d) Will be at an increasing rate applicable for 50% of the term.

14. Pricing of various products of an Insurance company is done by
a) The Actuary b) The underwriter
b) The chief Accountant d) The C.E.O. of the Insurance company

15. Gross premium is arrived at by Actuary after making a loading for expenses bonus and profit margin to
a) The risk premium b) The level premium c) Net premium d) Mortality premium

16. A Proper financial plan can provide the benefits of
a) Protection of income, medical needs, dependant’s welfare
b) Fulfillment of protection needs of an individual, return on investments and tax benefits
c) The protection of family’s maintenance in the absence of the income provider.
d) Protection of the family from the existing loan burdens

17. Most of the insurance plans offered by the life insurance companies provide
a) Guaranteed maturity benefits alone b) Flexible death cover alone
c) Death benefit and maturity benefit including survival benefits
d) Foreign travel and sickness insurance cover

18. The simplest form of insurance plans offered by life insurance companies offering only death cover for
a specified number of years is called
a) Whole life Insurance plan b) Limited payment whole life plan
c) Pure Endowment Plan d) Term insurance plan

19. Those who cannot afford to pay a higher premium, but still wants to have an insurance cover for a
required amount who would like to include a savings goal to their insurance later, when they can afford
a higher premium can take out
a) An Endowment Policy b) a Money Back Policy
c) Term insurance Policy d) Convertible Term Insurance policy

20. Joint Life insurance plans covering two or more persons under a single policy are issued by insurance
companies for
a) Married couple or business partners b) Brothers and sisters
c) Colleagues working in the same office d) Parents and children

21. A group insurance policy provides insurance protection to a group of people brought together for a
common objective. However, that group should not be
a) Group of employees of an organisations b) Customers of a bank
c) An organisation is  formed for the purpose of taking up life insurance.
d) Members of a professional body

22. Micro insurance aims at providing insurance cover for amounts ranging from Rs.5000 to
a) Rural population b) Minor children
c) Kisan card users d) Persons belonging to low income group

23. Salary savings scheme (SSS) is
a) Specific type of insurance plan b) Only term insurance plan is offered under SSS
c) It s just a convenient arrangement to collect the premium through salary deduction
d) A group insurance policy

24. Tax benefits available for life insurance products are contained in
a) Sec.113 of the Insurance Act b) I.R.D.A Regulations
c) Sec.80C and 10(10D) of the Income Tax Act d) Sec.80G & Sec.80CCF of the Income Tax Act

25. Which of the following category of protection needs has to be taken up immediately and provided for
fully?
a) Critical priority category b) Low priority Category
c) Medium priority Category d) High priority Category

26. The medium term goals an individual may have include saving money for
a) Buying consumer durable like Air-conditioner or L.E.D. Television
b) Their children’s education and marriage
c) Their vacation at a hill station
d) Providing modular kitchen for their home.

27. Financial planning of an individual
a) Is a one-off activity b) Best done at random based on peer influence
c) Needs to be done taking professional advice and needs to be reviewed regularly until the goals
are achieved d) Can be done most appropriately by the individual himself.

28. Which of the following investment/savings product will be best suited for Rahul who has recently
retired from service from a private sector organisations,
a) Bank Fixed Deposit b) Gold and Silver
c) Real Estate d) Pension product offered by life insurance companies

29. Life Insurance products which provide an element of savings are found to be superior to other forms of
savings in respect of
a) Return on Investment b) Liquidity
c) Meeting the protection needs d) hedge against inflation

30. Which of the following savings does not rank for deduction from taxable income under sec.80C of the
Income Tax Act?
a) Life Insurance premium b) Public Provident Fund
c) Mutual Funds units other than E.L.S.S. d) contribution to pension Funds

31. If inflation is running at 5% and you wish to get a return of atleast 5% net of inflation, your investment
should get attleast a return of
a) 8% b) 10% c) 9% d) 12%

32. In the case of a reduction in the interest rate
a) Investment in Bank deposits become more attractive
b) Borrowings become costlier for companies which may put pressure on profitability of the
companies
c) Demand for equities may go up and share prices will go up d) Will lead to reduction in consumption

33. Rakesh wants to create an Emergency Fund to meet any emergency needs like medical treatment,
sudden travel expenses or any major repair to his car/house. He would best be advised to set aside
some money in
a) Real Estate b) Single Premium Endowment Policy
c) Bank Deposit and a debt fund in Mutual Funds d) Public Provident Fund

34. Medium term needs of a clients can best be taken care of by life insurance policies. Such needs will
include savings for
a) Emergencies like hospitalization, attending to unexpected repairs to car ; annual vacation etc.,
b) Children’s education, marriage etc
c) Purchase of a house d) Post-retirement income

35. The insurance plans that take care of the needs of aged people are
a) Money Back Policies b) Joint Life Policies
c) Annuities and Health insurance products d) ULIPs

36. With Medical expenses soaring in recent years, coupled with vulnerability to diseases, the need for
health insurance is now greater than ever before. Therefore it is prudent to have health cover
a) At advanced stage of life b) at middle ages
c) at young age d) at every stage of lie

37. Riders are conditions or clauses that are added to the base plan
a) That restrict the existing benefits available under the policy
b) That excludes specific risks from the purview of the cover
c) That provide additional benefits on payment of additional premium
d) And available without any restriction whatsoever

38. Accidental death benefit, critical illness benefits waiver of premium, enhanced death cover are
examples of
a) Multiple benefits b) Extended covers c) Multipurpose covers d) Riders

39. Which of the following statement is not correct in respect of family floater insurance plan
a) Under this policy an individual can cover self, spouse, children and parents
b) The insurance cover is shared among the family members covered in fixed proportion
c) The insurance company may specify the number of people that can be covered
d) This is an yearly renewable policy, where under premium may change every year.

40. Under a Health Insurance plan, the insurance company pays the insured a fixed amount on a daily basis
in the event of hospitalization, which may be more or less than the cost of actual treatment. This plan
is called
a) Group Health Insurance Plan b) Cashless facility Plan
c) Critical illness plan d) Daily hospitalization cash benefit plan

41. Which of the following statement is correct in respect of health insurance plans
a) Not all costs will be covered by the insurance company and there may be some expenses that
might be excluded from the cover.
b) Cashless facility is available in all hospitals in respect of all health insurance policies
c) Pre-existing diseases are covered without any restriction
d) The total amount of the hospital bill will be fully reimbursed by the insurance company.

42. Waiver of premium rider is commonly available under which of the following plans?
a) Term Insurance Plan b) Health Insurance Plans
c) Children’s Endowment Plans d) Annuity Plans

43. The I.R.D.A. Regulations in respect of riders stipulate that
a) No policy can have more than two riders attached to it.
b) The premium for any single rider shall be as specified in the regulation
c) The benefits arising under each of the riders shall not exceed the sum insured under the base
plan
d) All riders can be added freely at will of the policyholder without any restriction

44. An annuity is a series of regular payments from an annuity provider to an individual referred to as
a) Beneficiary b) Annuitant c) Assignee d) Nominee

45. Annuities are often described as the ‘reverse’ of life insurance because
a) Premiums are payable either in a lump sum or in installments b) The annuity payments are dependent on the contingency of survival whereas life insurance
cover is for the contingency of death.
c) Annuities can be immediate or deferred
d) Annuities are bought from life insurance companies

46. Life annuity is a type of annuity where the insurance company
a) Makes the annuity payment throughout the life time of the annuitant and the annuity payment
ceases on the death of the annuitant
b) Guarantees annuity payments for a minimum fixed number of years.
c) Continues to pay the annuity to the surviving spouse d) Makes a refund of the premiums paid on the death of the annuitant

47. Which of the following type of annuity is devised to address the problem of inflation ?
a) Life annuity b) Guaranteed period annuity
c) Life annuity with return of purchase price d) Increasing annuity

48. Commutation facility available under annuity policies enable the annuitant
a) To start receiving the annuity payments after a certain period
b) The increase the pension amount on payment of additional contribution
c) To make a partial withdrawal upto one-third of the accumulated Fund
d) To surrender the policy during the regular annuity phase.

49. Which of the following statement is incorrect in respect of the Income-Tax benefits available for life
insurance policies.
a) An individual can pay the premiums for health insurance plans for self, spouse, children and
parents and make use of the tax benefits applicable.
b) Premiums paid for riders under life insurance policies also qualify for deduction from taxable
income subject to the limits prescribed
c) The premiums paid for pension plans during the accumulation phase quality for deduction from
taxable income subject to prescribed limits.
d) The annuity payments receivable under the pension products of life insurance companies are
exempted from Income-Tax as per sec.10 (10D)of the Income-Tax Act.

50. The accidental death benefit rider will not cover.
a) Death caused by accidental fall from a tree
b) Death caused by snake bite
c) Death caused by drowning
d) Death caused by accidental fall during mountaineering.

ANSWERS:

Q&A
1 B
2 C
3 D
4 B
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 C
 9 C 
10 A
11 C
12 C
13 B
14  A
15 C
16 B
17 C
18 D
19  D
20 A
21 C
22 D
23 C
24 C
25 A
26  B
27 C
28  D
29 C
 30 C
31  B
32 C
33 C
34 B
35 C
36 D
37 C
38 D
39  B
40 D 
41 A
42  C 
43 C 
44 B
45 B
46 A
47  D
48 C
 49 D
50 D

MODEL PAPERS-02

 
1. Insurance is a mechanism of
a) Risk retention b) Pooling of risk 
c) Risk transfer d) none of the above

2. Insurance relates to
a) Avoidance of risk b) Pooling of risk
c) Protection of economic value of assets d) Minimisation of risk

3. The insurance products designed by the insurance Companies may not
a) Take care of the needs of individuals in different life stages
b) Provide varied investment options.
c) Provide flexibility and add-on benefits
d) Guarantee capital appreciation.

4. Which of the following statement does not characterize the Professional Insurance market
a) Transparency in its dealings with customers.
b) It keeps the interest of its customers at the forefront of all that it does.
c) That the customers get what they are looking for.
d) Will have profit making as its only motive.

5. The first insurance company to transact life insurance business in India was
a) Oriental Life Insurance Company b) Bombay Mutual Life Insurance Co.
c) Empire of India d) Madras Equitable

6. I.R.D.A was incorporated as a Statutory body in
a) December 1999 b) June 1994
c) April 2000 d) June 2001

7. Bancassurance as envisaged in India means
a) Designing and marketing of insurance products by commercial banks.
b) Guaranteeing the benefits of insurance products of insurance companies by Banks.
c) Banks acting as corporate agents of insurance Companies to cross-sell insurance products to
their own customers.
d) Offering free insurance cover for its customers.

8. Reinsurance means
a) Purchase of additional insurance by an insured person.
b) Bringing into force, a lapsed policy.
c) Insurers seeking transfer of risk to shield themselves from over insurance
d) An individual insuring with different insurance companies.

9. Currently major percentage of insurance sales in India takes place through
a) Insurance Brokers b) Corporate agents.
c) Bancassurance channel d) Individual insurance agents

10. Which of the following does not form part of the regular function of I.R.D.A.?
a) Ensuring smooth running of the insurance sector.
b) Granting of licenses to insurance companies, agents, intermediaries and Loss adjusters/
Surveyors.
c) Monitoring the solvency position of the insurance companies.
d) Fixing up the premium rates for the products of the insurers.

11. Code of conduct for insurance agents are specified in the
a) Insurance Act 1938 b) I.R.D.A. (Licensing of Insurance Agents) Regulation 2000.
c) I.R.D.A. Act 1999 d) Consumer Protection Act 1986

12. Insurance Companies provide cover only for
a) Specified Risks b) Unspecified risks c) Excluded risks d) Speculative risks

13. A hazard can be defined as
a) A specific event which might cause a loss b) The chance of damage or loss
c) A condition that either increases the chance of a peril happening or cause its effect to be worse.
b) Uncertainty of an event happening.

14. Which of the following cannot be insured?
a) Financial risk b) Particular risk c) Pure risk d) Speculative risk

15. Risk transfer provides a sense of
a) Financial instability b) Financial distress c) Financial security d) Financial deficit

16. Level of risk is determined by
a) The probability of the occurrence of a certain event and the extent of losses likely to be
suffered due to the occurrence of the event.
b) Needs of the people for various types of protections.
c) The various types of risks to which the subject matter of insurance is exposed to
d) The experience of a company in a particular region.

17. Human life is exposed to different type of risks. Which of these risks is not currently covered by Indian
insurers?
a) Early death. b) Illness c) Living too long
d) Unemployment not caused by disability

18. Pure risks are those risks where there is
a) Loss or no loss b) Gain or no gain
c) Possibility of any benefits occurring d) Full control over their occurrence.

19. The consideration in an insurance contract flowing from the insured person is called
a) Proposal b) Premium c) Declaration d) Consent

20. An individual cannot enter into a contract because of his incapacity, if he is
a) Of the age of majority b) Of sound mind
c) Not disqualified by law d) Accused of a criminal offences

21. Consensus ad idem means
a) Ethics in advertisements b) Consumers right to knowledge
c) Both parties having the same understanding d) Proper identity of a person.

22. The object of a contract should be to create
a) A mutual relationship b) A natural relationship
c) A legal relationship d) Everlasting relationship

23. The policy document is the
a) Contract of insurance b) Evidence of the insurance contract
c) Consideration for the insurance contract d) Acceptance of the proposal.

24. Insurable interest is
a) The legal right of the person to insure an individual/property.
b) Interest an insured person has to pay for delayed payment of premium beyond the days of
grace.
c) The interest which the proposer evinces in taking up insurance.
d) The interest a policyholder has in the policy which is recongnised by law

25. The relationships in which insurable interest is deemed to exist are narrated in
a) Insurance Act 1938 b) I.R.D.A Act 1999
c) I.R.D.A Regulations d) Already prevailing court judgments.

26. Insurable Interest is deemed to exist in which of the following relationship?
(i) Husband and wife (ii) Parent and children
(iii) Employer and employees (iv) Brother and Sister
a) (i) (ii) and (iv) b) (i) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) d) (i) (ii) and (iii)

27. In Life insurance insurable interest must exist
a) at the time of taking out the policy b) at the time of claim
c) both at the time of taking out of the policy as well as at the time of claim
d) at the time of taking out of the policy and at the time of payment of every renewal premium.

28. The rule governing the sale and purchase of goods and services is
a) Utmost good faith b) Caveat emptor c) unfair trade practice d) indemnity

29. Utmost good faith envisages a positive duty to disclose accurately all information that are
a) Facts of common knowledge b) Facts which are material to the risk being proposed
c) Facts of law d) Facts already known to the insurer

30. The duty of disclosure as enunciated by the principle of utmost good faith, is imposed on
a) The proposer only b) the insurer only
c) the proposer and the insurer d) neither the proposer nor the insurer

31. Material facts are those
a) That are specified to be so in the proposal b) That are considered to be so by the proposer
c) That would influence the decision of the underwriter in accepting the risk
d) That are specified so in the Insurance Act 1938

32. Even though the insurer may avoid the contract entirely “ab initio” for the reason of misrepresentation
or non-disclosure, the Insurance Act 1938, gives a protection to the policy holder making the policy in
disputable after 2 years (excepting for fraud) as per
a) Sec.131 of the Insurance Act 1938 b) Sec. 38 of the Insurance Act 1938
c) Sec. 45 of the Insurance Act 1938 d) Sec. 41 of the Insurance Act 1938

33. In the case of life insurance the duty of disclosure exists
a) At the time of proposal until the risk is accepted and at the time of revival of a lapsed policy
b) At the time of payment of every renewal premium
c) From the time of proposal till the time of claim
d) At periodical intervals stipulated by insurers.

34. Which of the following types of insurances is not a contract of indemnity
a) Fire Insurance b) Mediclaim (Health Insurance)
c) Motor Insurance d) Life Insurance

35. Which of the following document contains the offer of the insurer:
a) Proposal b) Prospectus c) Policy d) Endorsement

36. Life Insurance contract commences, unless otherwise declined by the Proposer during the ‘free look
period’:
a) From the date of proposal b) From the date of issue of First Premium Receipt
c) From the date of issue of the policy d) From the date of issue of quotation

37. Which of the following does not from part of the sources of the information the underwriter will use to
assess the risk?
a) The proposal form b) Medical Report c) Agent’s confidential Report d) Policy document.

38. The proposal form and the declaration of the proposer are construed as
a) The basis of the insurance contract b) The evidence of the insurance contract
c) Proof of commencement of the contract d) Acceptance of the risk

39. Which of the following is not considered as a standard age proof:
(a) Birth Certificate issued by Corporation/Municipality (b) School/College Certificate
(c) Certificate of baptism (d) Horoscope

40. Alterations in the terms of the policy can be made during the term of the policy through
a) Cover Note b) Slip c) Correction in the Schedule d) Endorsement

41. What happens to bonuses if a with profit policy is made paid up?
a) Bonus is reduced in proportion to the premiums paid
b) The accrued bonus is fully added to the reduced sum assured to arrive at the paid-up value.
c) The accrued bonus will be forfeited d) accrued bonus will be paid immediately.

42. Normally insurance Companies allow a paid up value for lapsed policies, if premiums have been paid
for a minimum period of three years. This paid up value will be
a) Payable immediately
b) Payable on maturity of the policy or on earlier death when claim becomes payable
c) Payable with interest d) Increasing with every subsequent year

43. Under an Endowment Policy for Rs.5,00,000/- in which 5 annual premiums have been paid out of a
total of 10 year premium paying term what will be the paid up value if accrued bonus is Rs.50,000/- ?
a) Rs.2,00,000 b) Rs.2,50,000 c) Rs.3,00,000 d) Rs.2,75,000

44. The Insurance Act does not allow the insurance Companies to keep all the premiums paid when a
policy lapses and makes it mandatory to pay certain minimum surrender value as enshrined in the
policy because
a) Under level premium system premiums collected in the early years of the policy are more than
the required amount.
b) Of the savings element in the premium
c) For both the above reasons d) For none of the above reasons

45. The process of bringing the lapsed policies into full force is called
a) Renewal b) Reinstatement c) Revival d) Paid-up

46. In respect of Nomination under a Life Insurance Policy which of the following is true “?
a) A minor cannot be a nominee
b) More than one person cannot be nominated as nominees
c) Nominee becomes the policy holder
d) Nomination becomes effective only when it is intimated to the insurer

47. Which of the following statement is true?
a) Nominee is rightful owner of the claim amount payable under a policy
b) When an assignment is made, the existing nomination is no longer valid
c) An assignee can make a nomination
d) In case of multiple nomination, the death claim amount will be paid to them in equal proportion

48. Which of the following statement is incorrect in respect of assignment?
a) The assignor should be a major and should have complete title in the policy
b) Assignment can be done by an endorsement on the policy or by a separate deed.
c) Assignee can make a nomination
d) The rights under an assigned policy will revert back to the assignor when it is reassigned to him
by the assignee.

49. Which of the following statement is not correct in respect of foreclosure of a Policy?
a) It is done by the insurer when loan granted under the policy with interest due thereon is likely
to exceed the surrender value available in the policy
b) It is done by the insurer only after giving due notice to the borrower
c) On foreclosure nomination ceases to be operative
d) It is voluntary surrender of the policy by the policyholder.

50. The surrender value of a policy has no relevance to the
a) The paid up value of the policy b) Term of the policy
c) Duration of the policy till surrender d) health of the life assured

ANSWERS:

Q.A
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 D
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 D
15 C
16 A
17 D
18 A
19 B
20 D
21 C
22 C
23 B
24 A
25 D
26 D
27 A
28 B
29 B
30 C
31 C
32 C
33 A
34 D
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 A
39 D
40 D 
41 B
42 B
43 C
44 C 
45 C
46 D
47 B
48 C
49 D
50 D

MODEL PAPERS-01 2013


1. The concept of insurance involves a transfer of
A. liability.
B. needs.
C. ownership.
D. risk.
2. Rakesh recently bought a health insurance policy and a personal accident policy. What main section(s) of the insurance market do these products normally fall into?
A. Life insurance in both cases.
B. Life insurance for health and non-life insurance for personal accident.
C. Non-life insurance in both cases.
D. Non-life insurance for health and life insurance for personal accident.
 3. The main role of an underwriter in a non-life insurance company is normally to
A. assess the acceptability of particular risks.
B. certify a loss when claims are submitted.
C. design the structure of the products to be offered.
D. negotiate with the industry regulator.
 4. Akshat is a relatively cautious person. In insurance terms, this will normally increase the likelihood that he will
A. be considered an above average insurance risk.
B. be considered a below average insurance risk.
C. require insurance cover.
D. require reinsurance cover.
 5. How are perils and hazards normally distinguished under term insurance policies?
A. Perils are medical factors which influence the risk of dying and hazards are lifestyle activities which influence the risk of dying.
B. Perils are risks that policyholders will die before a specified date and hazards are factors which could influence that risk.
C. Perils are factors which affect the risk being insured and hazards are the size of the risk being insured.
D. Perils are factors which could influence an insured event occurring and hazards are the actual events which will trigger a payout.
 6. In insurance terms, the risk of suffering a disability is best described as what type of risk?
A. Financial.
B. Fundamental.
C. Homogenous.
D. Speculative.
 7. For a household insurance policy, insurable interest need only exist at outset and at what other point?
A. The date the cancellation period expires.
B. The date a claim occurs.
C. The date the policy document is received.
D. The termination date.
 8. Rahul is employed by Sunny. In respect of this employment, Rahul automatically has insurable interest in Sunny’s life up to what limit, if any?
A. Rahul’s monthly salary.
B. Rahul’s pension fund value.
C. Sunny’s annual profit.
D. There is no limit.Sample Questions IC-33 7
9. Arun started a 20-year term insurance policy. Once established, when, if at all, is the insurer next entitled to ask him for proof of continuing good health?
A. At no point.
B. After the end of the first 12 months.
C. At the point when he changes occupation or retires.
D. When a lapsed policy is revived.
 10. The concept of indemnity is based on the key principle that policyholders should be prevented from
A. insuring existing losses.
B. making false insurance claims.
C. paying excessively for insurance cover.
D. profiting from insurance.
 11. Once an absolute assignment is effected under a life insurance policy, who will be the titleholder(s) of this policy?
A. The assignor in all cases.
B. The assignee in all cases.
C. Either the assignor or assignee depending on the type of policy involved.
D. The assignor and assignee jointly.
 12. How long is the free look-in period under a term insurance policy from the date of receipt of the policy document?
A. 5 days.
B. 10 days.
C. 15 days.
D. 20 days.
 13. A life insurer issued a quotation on 10 February, guaranteed for 14 days, which was accepted by the customer on day 10. Consequently the insurer can only decline this risk if the
A. customer submits a second quotation request.
B. insurer increases its underlying premium rates.
C. market place experiences a significant downturn.
D. material facts change.
 14. A policy document for a money-back policy includes the statement ‘the proposal and declaration signed by the proposer form the basis of the contract’. In which main section of the policy document will this normally appear?
A. Attestation.
B. Operative clause.
C. Preamble.
D. Terms and conditions.
 15. A life insurance policy can only be made paid up if what particular policy feature exists?
A. Indexing contribution.
B. Nomination facility.
C. Rider benefits.
D. Savings element.
16. The main reason why a life insurance proposal form often asks for the proposer’s height is to enable a reasonable comparison with the proposer’s
A. age.
B. gender.
C. occupation.
D. weight.
 17. Where annually increasing flexible premiums operate under a life insurance policy, what rate of increase will generally apply?
A. 2.5%
B. 3.0%
C. 5.0%
D. 7.5%
 18. The amount paid out by the insurer under a 30-year life insurance policy exceeded the sum insured plus revisionary bonuses. The excess is likely to result from?
A. charges refunded.
B. a frequency loading.
C. a tax rebate.
D. a terminal bonus.
19. What normally happens to the sum insured under a life insurance policy once the period of the lien expires?
A. It reduces.
B. It increases.
C. It is temporarily suspended.
D. It is replaced by a newly-underwritten sum insured.
 20. The main protection need of a 19-year-old is most likely to be
A. self-protection.
B. home loan protection.
C. protection of dependants.
D. protection of children’s future.
 21. Raunak recently arranged a life insurance policy under which he is classed as the master policyholder. This addresses his role as
A. a creditor.
B. a debtor.
C. an employee.
D. an employer.
 22. The need for investment advice from an insurance agent normally results from what overriding key factor?
A. Absence of any long-term goals.
B. Inability to prioritise future financial needs.
C. Lack of market knowledge.
D. Shortage of available funds.
 23. When undertaking financial planning for individuals without capital, what savings need is likely to be addressed in every single case?
A. Emergency funds.
B. Funds for children’s savings.
C. Funds for educational costs.
D. House purchase funds.Sample Questions IC-33 9
24. Naveen is addressing his income needs by investing directly in corporate bonds. In what form will he receive this income?
A. Annuity instalments.
B. Dividend payments.
C. Interest payments.
D. Rental payments.
 25. Nikhil is looking for tax-efficient savings methods for his disposable income. He is considering an equity-linked savings scheme, national savings certificates and an endowment insurance policy. Premiums for which of these investments are allowed to be deducted from his taxable income?
A. The national savings certificates only.
B. The equity-linked savings scheme and the national savings certificates only.
C. The national savings certificates and the endowment insurance policy only.
D. The equity-linked savings scheme, the national savings certificates and the endowment insurance policy.
 26. An investor holds a wide range of shares. If the Reserve Bank of India announces a series of significant interest rate increases, the prices of these shares are most likely to
A. become volatile.
B. decrease.
C. increase.
D. stagnate.
 27. The main purpose of the guaranteed insurability rider benefit is to give the policyholder the right to
A. cancel a health-based exclusion after a symptom-free period.
B. include his parents under the policy.
C. increase cover when a key life event occurs.
D. maintain cover despite a fall in investment value.
 28. The changes in healthcare costs over recent years has had what general impact on healthcare insurance?
A. A fall in average premium levels.
B. A reduction in underwriting requirements.
C. A rise in the need for cover.
D. A strengthening of the insurable interest rules.
 29. The general need for a pension policy results from the existence of what key problem?
A. Anticipated fall in income.
B. Lack of employment opportunities.
C. Likely deterioration in health.
D. Uncertainty over investment performance.
 30. Yash pays health insurance premiums for himself, his wife and his two children aged 13 and 8. Premiums for which of these individuals will qualify as deductible from Yash’s taxable income?
A. Yash only.
B. Yash and his wife only.
C. Yash, his wife and his oldest child.
D. Yash, his wife and both his children.
31. The sole focus during a client’s fact-find session was healthcare requirements and estate planning. Which main life stage is he most likely to fall into?
A. Young married.
B. Young married with children.
C. Pre-retirement.
D. Retirement.
 32. Apart from the salary level, what other key feature of Alok’s job is likely to have a major impact on the level of his pension, life insurance and health insurance needs?
A. Whether the job is office or field-based.
B. The normal retirement age in relation to the job.
C. Whether the job is in the public or private sector.
D. Whether the job is manual or non-manual.
 33. In the context of financial planning, how is the difference between real needs and perceived needs best described?
A. Real needs are financial needs and perceived needs are non-financial needs.
B. Real needs are actual needs and perceived needs are based on a client’s thoughts and desires.
C. Real needs are identified by the insurance agent and perceived needs are identified by the client.
D. Real needs are needs which satisfy an objective and perceived needs are needs which do not satisfy an objective.
 34. In order to fulfil the ‘know your customer’ procedures, at what stage in the financial planning process is the insurance agent most likely to request a copy of the customer’s photograph?
A. At the end of the fact-find meeting.
B. At the end of the presentation meeting.
C. As soon as the application is accepted by the insurer.
D. As soon as the insurer is ready to issue the policy document.
 35. An agent has recommended an investment product with non-guaranteed benefits. The benefit illustration passed to his client will therefore use assumed annual growth rates of
A. 5% and 8%
B. 5% and 10%
C. 6% and 8%
D. 6% and 10%
 36. The main purpose of including commission details in the documentation to clients is to increase
A. competitiveness.
B. efficiency.
C. flexibility.
D. transparency.
 37. A client has been recommended a low-risk investment product by his insurance agent, but the client insists the agent arranges for the money to be invested in a higher risk product. What action should the agent take?
A. Carry out these instructions, but document that this contradicts the recommendation.
B. Conduct a new fact-find.
C. Invest a reduced amount of money in this product.
D. Refuse to act for the client.Sample Questions IC-33 1138. An insurance agent has advised a client to surrender an existing investment product and start a new investment product. What key indicator should be used to determine whether this advice was ethical?
A. The best interests of the client.
B. The difference in potential income and capital growth between the two products.
C. The flexibility of the new product compared to the old one.
D. The views expressed by the client.
 39. What key impact will low persistency levels have on insurance policyholders?
A. An enhancement in product choice.
B. An improvement in investment performance.
C. An increase in insurance cover.
D. A reduction in benefits.
 40. Raju died 5 years before the end of his 30-year endowment insurance policy. What factor most likely caused the insurer to investigate the claim using the early death claim procedures?
A. He paid the most recent premium during the period of grace.
B. His cover was originally accepted with a premium loading on medical grounds.
C. His death resulted from a recently acquired sudden illness.
D. The policy had lapsed and was revived shortly before he died.
 41. A claim under a term insurance policy is submitted by an individual who has substantially understated his age. As an alternative to paying out the full claim the insurer is most likely to take what action?
A. Deduct the underpaid premiums from the sum insured.
B. Make the policy paid up.
C. Pay out the surrender value.
D. Reject the claim on the grounds of misrepresentation.
 42. On the maturity of an endowment policy, a reduced sum insured is paid out. What is the most likely reason for this?
A. The instalments were commuted by the policyholder.
B. The policyholder’s health seriously deteriorated during the policy term.
C. The policy was made paid up during the policy term.
D. The policy was subject to a lien.43. What key event is most likely to prevent insurers from ensuring that each insured person brings a fair premium to the pool for the risk presented?
A. A fraudulent claim.
B. A policy assignment.
C. A steep rise in inflation.
D. A sudden illness.
44. An insurance agent served an insurer continually and exclusively for 20 years, after which he retired from work. In accordance with Section 44 of the Insurance Act 1938, renewal commission due to him after the termination of his agency can only be withheld if
A. he ceases to remain a resident of India for tax purposes.
B. he survives beyond the age of 75.
C. there has been a change in regulator.
D. there is fraud involved.
45. Legislation gives which body the power to specify a code of conduct for surveyors and loss assessors?
A. Institute of Insurance and Risk Management.
B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.
C. Life Insurance Council.
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India.
 46. What key legacy has been left by the activities of the Tariff Advisory Committee?
A. A central compensation fund.
B. Customer classification status.
C. Illustrative projection rates.
D. Standard policy wordings.
 47. Apart from conducting a comprehensive fact-find, the other main action that an insurance agent can take at outset to minimise the risk of subsequently receiving a customer complaint is to
A. ask for referrals.
B. offer commission rebates.
C. provide detailed disclosures.
D. register with the Insurance Ombudsman.
 48. An award made by the Insurance Ombudsman will only be binding on the insurer if the
A. complainant accepts this decision.
B. Consumer Forum is involved in the case.
C. insurer signs a disclaimer.
D. value of the award is less than 2 lakhs.
 49. A policyholder asked his insurance agent for guidance on submitting a claim for the maturity benefit under his life insurance policy. Due to pressure of work, the agent declined to assist. Consequently, this action is deemed to be a breach of the
A. General Insurance Council’s guidelines.
B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority’s Code of Conduct.
C. Insurance Ombudsman’s protocols.
D. Insurance Brokers Association of India’s membership rules.
 50. During the process of applying for life insurance, the customer discloses confidentially to the insurance agent that he had a mild stroke four months ago, however this was NOT mentioned on the application form. In accordance with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority’s Code of Conduct, how should the insurance agent deal with this information?
A. Ask the policyholder’s doctor to send details to the insurer.
B. Notify the insurer of this matter.
C. Refuse to act for the customer in this case.
D. Respect this confidentiality by not discussing it with anyone else.